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David Armstrong's avatar

I used to buy #5; I’ve been in #6-7 world for awhile now. I find it likely that the only Gospel whose author is potentially identifiable is Mark—but not Papias’s Mark; I find Helen Bond’s suggestion that this is an otherwise unknown Markos active in Rome attractive.

CarlJ's avatar

It would have been very helpful if the gospel authors had at least signed their name. I've had this happen in my classroom where I pick up my students work and find out after collecting them all that 2 of the students didn't put their name on the paper. I really like Tabor's case, but I didn't realize James was martyred before the Gospel of John was thought to have been written. If I have to pick one, I will go with Dr. Bond's writings. I could see someone who was a believer in Christ wanting to write a text that helped more people believe. In the end, how much of the Bible is Fan Fiction?

JD Walters's avatar

The comment in John that the disciple was known to the high priest is also in tension with John Zebedee being an illiterate Galilean fisherman. How likely is it that such a person would have the eye of the most important religious figure in Judea? And wouldn’t the chief priests have recognized him when Peter and John were hauled before them in Acts where they perceive them to be illiterate? “What’s he doing here, doesn’t the high priest know this guy?”

Anita's avatar

Slightly off topic, it strikes me as interesting that there are parallels with John’s gospel and the Pauline letters that are not really found in the synoptic gospels. For example, Jesus viewed as divine and pre-existent, lot of language on love, theme of abiding in Christ, emphasis on faith/belief.

Is there any connection between these two or did they independently develop their own theology and happen to come to very similar ideas? And if the author is John son of Zebedee, would it make more sense that it’s so similar to Paul’s theology as they knew one another? (Galatians 2:9)

Also, does the term used in acts 4:13 automatically mean illiterate or can it mean they were untrained as teachers? Would that help the case for John as a potential author?